Silvanamorillo Silvanamorillo
  • 03-11-2018
  • Mathematics
contestada

Is 16% of 40 the same has 40%? Explain your reasoning

Respuesta :

arc0115 arc0115
  • 03-11-2018
if u meant 16 out of 40 then yes however, if j meant 16 percent then no as that is a different number completely... hope this answers your question.
Answer Link

Otras preguntas

Why would a defendant ask for a trial to be moved to another location?
Oil has transformed life in the middle east. Which did not happen as a result of producing so much oil? A. clashes intensified between modernizers sympathetic t
It would bother you very much if you knew another employee was losing The company money because of rudeness to customers or vendors
when was the first TV made
Need help show me how to do it and the amswer
The fact that Southern juries generally did not convict those accused of murdering African-Americans and civil rights workers illustrates one of the problems as
How many atoms and molecules are present in 124 gram of phosphorus
how would u solve these questions?
What is the process of researching or studying a concept?
Which sentence shows the correct use of a common homophone? This morning, Shelly wore a pear of gloves to school. I had a sandwich, some cheese, and a pear for